Haryana Superior Judicial Service (HSJS) — Prelims Pattern Mock 3 (100 Questions)

Q1. [Contract] A minor can be a:

• A. Promisor
• B. Promisee/beneficiary
• C. Surety
• D. Partner

Q2. [Contract] ‘Doctrine of restitution’ against a minor allows return of:

• A. Money always
• B. Identifiable property/benefit (equitable)
• C. Nothing
• D. Damages

Q3. [Contract] An agent exceeding authority binds the principal to the extent the act is:

• A. Void
• B. Separable and within authority
• C. Ratified only
• D. Illegal

Q4. [Contract] A ‘del credere’ commission is extra remuneration for:

• A. Selling
• B. Guaranteeing the buyer’s performance
• C. Buying
• D. Storing

Q5. [Contract] ‘Anticipatory breach’ — if the promisee keeps the contract alive, the risk of supervening frustration is on:

• A. Promisor
• B. The promisee (who kept it alive)
• C. The court
• D. Neither

Q6. [Contract] A ‘standard form contract’ clause is unenforceable if it is:

• A. Printed
• B. Unconscionable/against public policy
• C. Long
• D. In English

Q7. [Contract] ‘Quantum valebant’ relates to a reasonable price for:

• A. Services
• B. Goods supplied
• C. Land
• D. Shares

Q8. [Contract] A contingent contract to do a thing if an uncertain future event happens becomes void if the event becomes:

• A. Certain
• B. Impossible
• C. Probable
• D. Delayed

Q9. [Contract] ‘Pari delicto’ — where both parties are equally at fault, the court:

• A. Assists plaintiff
• B. Generally leaves the parties where they are
• C. Assists defendant
• D. Voids all

Q10. [Contract] A contract with a ‘public policy’ violation (e.g., stifling prosecution) is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Contingent

Q11. [Property] ‘Movable property’ includes:

• A. Land
• B. Standing timber, growing crops, grass
• C. Buildings
• D. Benefits from land

Q12. [Property] ‘Attestation’ of a document requires ___ witnesses:

• A. One
• B. Two or more
• C. Three
• D. Four

Q13. [Property] A transfer ‘subject to a condition subsequent’ — the interest is:

• A. Never vested
• B. Vested but liable to divest on the condition
• C. Contingent always
• D. Void

Q14. [Property] ‘Vested interest’ is not defeated by the death of the transferee before:

• A. Vesting
• B. Possession
• C. Registration
• D. Attestation

Q15. [Property] A gift of existing and future property — the gift of future property is:

• A. Valid
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Contingent

Q16. [Property] A gift may be suspended or revoked on an agreement that on the happening of a specified event:

• A. Never
• B. It shall be revoked (not depending on donor’s will)
• C. At donor’s will
• D. By registration

Q17. [Property] A mortgage where possession is delivered as security is a:

• A. Simple mortgage
• B. Usufructuary mortgage
• C. English mortgage
• D. Equitable mortgage

Q18. [Property] ‘Anomalous mortgage’ — TPA:

• A. s.58(a)
• B. s.58(f)
• C. s.58(g)
• D. s.60

Q19. [Property] The right of a mortgagor to redeem is extinguished only by:

• A. Default
• B. A decree of foreclosure/sale or by act of parties
• C. Notice
• D. Possession

Q20. [Property] ‘Once a mortgage always a mortgage’ — a stipulation preventing redemption is a:

• A. Valid term
• B. Clog on redemption (void)
• C. Charge
• D. Lease

Q21. [Property] ‘Marshalling’ allows a subsequent mortgagee to compel the prior mortgagee to:

• A. Sell all
• B. Satisfy his debt out of property not mortgaged to the subsequent one
• C. Refund
• D. Foreclose

Q22. [Property] A ‘charge’ differs from a mortgage in that a charge:

• A. Transfers ownership
• B. Does not transfer an interest, only secures payment
• C. Is a lease
• D. Is a gift

Q23. [Property] A lease of immovable property for a term exceeding one year must be by:

• A. Oral agreement
• B. Registered instrument
• C. Delivery
• D. Note

Q24. [Property] On determination of a lease, the lessee’s obligation is to:

• A. Retain
• B. Put the lessor in possession
• C. Sell
• D. Sublet

Q25. [Property] A ‘licence’ is defined in the:

• A. TPA
• B. Indian Easements Act, s.52
• C. CPC
• D. ICA

Q26. [Property] An easement of necessity arises on:

• A. Prescription
• B. Severance of a dominant/servient tenement
• C. Grant
• D. Custom

Q27. [Property] A ‘dominant heritage’ is the land for whose benefit an easement:

• A. Is extinguished
• B. Exists
• C. Is sold
• D. Is leased

Q28. [Property] ‘Profit à prendre’ is a right to:

• A. Way
• B. Take something (produce/soil) from another’s land
• C. Air
• D. Support

Q29. [Property] An easement can be extinguished by:

• A. Non-use
• B. Unity of ownership / release / 20-year non-use
• C. Registration
• D. Attestation

Q30. [Property] Registration of documents is compulsory under s.17 of the:

• A. TPA
• B. Registration Act, 1908
• C. Stamp Act
• D. ISA

Q31. [Commercial] ‘Endorsement’ of a negotiable instrument means signing on the:

• A. Face
• B. Back/allonge for negotiation
• C. Margin
• D. Corner

Q32. [Commercial] An ‘accommodation bill’ is one drawn:

• A. For value
• B. Without consideration, to accommodate a party
• C. By a bank
• D. For sale

Q33. [Commercial] ‘Dishonour by non-acceptance’ applies to a:

• A. Cheque
• B. Bill of exchange
• C. Promissory note
• D. Deed

Q34. [Commercial] ‘Noting and protest’ relate to:

• A. Cheques
• B. Dishonour of bills/notes
• C. Sale
• D. Lease

Q35. [Commercial] A ‘holder in due course’ takes the instrument:

• A. Overdue
• B. For value, in good faith, before maturity, without notice of defect
• C. With notice
• D. As a gift

Q36. [Commercial] In s.138 NI Act, the drawer must be given ___ to pay after notice:

• A. 7 days
• B. 15 days
• C. 30 days
• D. 45 days

Q37. [Commercial] Liability of a company for s.138 extends to persons ‘in charge of and responsible for’ the:

• A. Auditors
• B. Conduct of business (s.141)
• C. Shareholders
• D. Customers

Q38. [Commercial] An arbitration clause survives the termination of the main contract — doctrine of:

• A. Merger
• B. Separability/severability
• C. Frustration
• D. Novation

Q39. [Commercial] An arbitral tribunal’s jurisdiction plea must be raised not later than:

• A. Award
• B. The submission of the statement of defence
• C. Appeal
• D. Enforcement

Q40. [Commercial] Interim relief from a court after the award but before enforcement is under:

• A. s.9
• B. s.17
• C. s.34
• D. s.36

Q41. [Commercial] A foreign award’s enforcement (New York Convention) is under Part II — objection grounds are in:

• A. s.34
• B. s.48
• C. s.36
• D. s.11

Q42. [Commercial] The ‘group of companies’ doctrine binds a non-signatory to arbitration in:

• A. No case
• B. Appropriate cases (Cox and Kings)
• C. All cases
• D. Only foreign

Q43. [Commercial] A partnership is not created by mere:

• A. Agreement
• B. Co-ownership/sharing of gross returns
• C. Business
• D. Profit sharing with mutual agency

Q44. [Commercial] ‘Mutual agency’ is the true test of a:

• A. Company
• B. Partnership
• C. Trust
• D. HUF

Q45. [Commercial] A retiring partner’s liability to third parties continues until:

• A. Immediately ends
• B. Public notice of retirement is given
• C. Registration
• D. Dissolution

Q46. [Commercial] An LLP has:

• A. Unlimited liability
• B. Perpetual succession & limited liability
• C. No legal identity
• D. Partners’ unlimited liability

Q47. [Commercial] Under SOGA, ‘goods’ means every kind of ___ property (other than actionable claims and money):

• A. Immovable
• B. Movable
• C. Real
• D. Intellectual

Q48. [Commercial] An ‘agreement to sell’ becomes a ‘sale’ when:

• A. Contract signed
• B. The conditions are fulfilled/time elapses & property passes
• C. Payment made
• D. Delivered

Q49. [Commercial] ‘Sale by description’ implies a condition that the goods:

• A. Match the sample
• B. Correspond with the description
• C. Are new
• D. Are cheap

Q50. [Commercial] ‘Doctrine of caveat venditor’ (seller beware) is reflected in SOGA:

• A. Nowhere
• B. Implied conditions/warranties protecting buyers
• C. Only s.16
• D. Only s.4

Q51. [Commercial] IBC’s objective is time-bound resolution to maximise value; the primary body is the:

• A. CoC
• B. IRP/RP under CoC
• C. NCLT only
• D. Debtor

Q52. [Commercial] Under IBC, personal guarantors to corporate debtors are adjudicated by the:

• A. DRT
• B. NCLT
• C. Civil court
• D. High Court

Q53. [Commercial] Liquidation under IBC follows failure of the:

• A. Moratorium
• B. Resolution plan/CIRP
• C. Appeal
• D. Audit

Q54. [Commercial] Doctrine of ‘constructive notice’ binds outsiders to the company’s:

• A. Private records
• B. Publicly registered documents (MOA/AOA)
• C. Board minutes
• D. Emails

Q55. [Commercial] ‘Turquand’s rule’ (indoor management) does NOT protect an outsider who:

• A. Acts in good faith
• B. Has knowledge of the irregularity
• C. Is a stranger
• D. Is a creditor

Q56. [Special Acts] NDPS ‘small’ vs ‘commercial’ quantity is notified by the:

• A. Court
• B. Central Government
• C. State
• D. Police

Q57. [Special Acts] NDPS s.37 twin conditions apply to bail in ___ quantity cases:

• A. Small
• B. Commercial
• C. Intermediate
• D. All

Q58. [Special Acts] POCSO ‘aggravated’ offences carry:

• A. Lesser punishment
• B. Enhanced punishment
• C. No punishment
• D. Fine only

Q59. [Special Acts] POCSO mandates recording the child’s statement:

• A. In court only
• B. At the child’s residence/place of choice, by a woman officer
• C. By any officer
• D. In writing only

Q60. [Special Acts] PC Act — an ‘undue advantage’ means any gratification other than:

• A. A bribe
• B. Legal remuneration
• C. A gift
• D. A loan

Q61. [Special Acts] PC Act s.17A prior approval is NOT required for cases involving:

• A. Any act
• B. Arrest on the spot / caught red-handed (trap cases)
• C. Sanction
• D. Investigation

Q62. [Special Acts] JJ Act — ‘heinous offence’ means one with minimum punishment of:

• A. 3 years
• B. 7 years or more
• C. 5 years
• D. 10 years

Q63. [Special Acts] JJ Act — a child below 16 is:

• A. Tried as adult
• B. Never tried as an adult
• C. Sometimes adult
• D. Jailed

Q64. [Special Acts] DV Act — ‘domestic relationship’ covers persons living in a:

• A. Contract
• B. Shared household (marriage/relationship in nature of marriage/family)
• C. Company
• D. Society

Q65. [Special Acts] DV Act — a ‘protection order’ restrains the respondent from:

• A. Paying
• B. Committing/aiding acts of domestic violence
• C. Residing anywhere
• D. Working

Q66. [Special Acts] SC/ST Act — the Special Court can take cognizance:

• A. Only on committal
• B. Directly (as a court of original jurisdiction, post-2015 amendment)
• C. Never
• D. Only on appeal

Q67. [Special Acts] IT Act s.66F deals with:

• A. Identity theft
• B. Cyber terrorism
• C. Obscenity
• D. Privacy

Q68. [Special Acts] IT Act — ‘digital signature/electronic signature’ authenticates an:

• A. FIR
• B. Electronic record
• C. Decree
• D. Charge

Q69. [Special Acts] MV Act — ‘no-fault liability’ for accident compensation is under:

• A. s.140/old
• B. s.164 (new)
• C. s.166
• D. s.147

Q70. [Special Acts] MV Act — third-party insurance is mandatory under:

• A. s.146
• B. s.147
• C. s.166
• D. s.140

Q71. [Special Acts] Consumer Protection Act 2019 — ‘unfair trade practice’ includes:

• A. Fair pricing
• B. False representation/misleading advertisement
• C. Warranty
• D. Discount

Q72. [Special Acts] Consumer Act — ‘deficiency’ relates to a:

• A. Product only
• B. Fault/imperfection in a service
• C. Price
• D. Advertisement

Q73. [Special Acts] Environment (Protection) Act — the Central Government’s power includes setting:

• A. Court fees
• B. Environmental standards & restrictions
• C. Bail
• D. Rent

Q74. [Special Acts] The Copyright Act protects:

• A. Inventions
• B. Original literary/artistic/musical works
• C. Trademarks
• D. Designs

Q75. [Special Acts] A patent under the Patents Act protects an:

• A. Expression
• B. Invention (novel, inventive, useful)
• C. Brand
• D. Design

Q76. [Family Law] Under HMA, the minimum age for marriage is 21 (male) and ___ (female):

• A. 16
• B. 18
• C. 21
• D. 20

Q77. [Family Law] A marriage in contravention of the age condition is:

• A. Void
• B. Neither void nor voidable (but punishable)
• C. Voidable
• D. Illegal

Q78. [Family Law] ‘Cruelty’ as a ground for divorce includes:

• A. Only physical
• B. Physical or mental cruelty
• C. Only mental
• D. Desertion

Q79. [Family Law] ‘Desertion’ as a ground requires a continuous period of at least:

• A. 6 months
• B. 1 year
• C. 2 years
• D. 3 years

Q80. [Family Law] Divorce by mutual consent requires living separately for ___ before petition:

• A. 6 months
• B. 1 year
• C. 2 years
• D. 3 years

Q81. [Family Law] The 6-month ‘cooling-off’ period in mutual-consent divorce is:

• A. Mandatory always
• B. Directory/waivable by the SC/court
• C. Fixed
• D. 2 years

Q82. [Family Law] Under HSA, a Hindu male dying intestate — his property first goes to:

• A. Class II heirs
• B. Class I heirs
• C. Agnates
• D. Cognates

Q83. [Family Law] A Hindu widow’s estate after the 1956 Act is:

• A. Limited
• B. Absolute (s.14)
• C. Life interest
• D. Contingent

Q84. [Family Law] Under Muslim law, ‘talaq-e-ahsan’ is:

• A. Instant
• B. A single revocable pronouncement followed by iddat
• C. Triple
• D. Void

Q85. [Family Law] Under Muslim law, a ‘Hiba’ is a:

• A. Sale
• B. Gift
• C. Will
• D. Lease

Q86. [Haryana Local Law] Rural local self-government in Haryana is under the:

• A. Punjab Tenancy Act
• B. Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. Punjab Courts Act

Q87. [Haryana Local Law] Time-bound public services in Haryana are guaranteed by the:

• A. Punjab Pre-emption Act
• B. Haryana Right to Service Act, 2014
• C. Rent Act
• D. Courts Act

Q88. [Haryana Local Law] Regulation of urban development/colonies in Haryana is under the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. Haryana Development and Regulation of Urban Areas Act, 1975
• C. Punjab Courts Act
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q89. [Haryana Local Law] Consolidation of landholdings in Haryana prevents:

• A. Rent
• B. Fragmentation of holdings
• C. Bail
• D. Mutation

Q90. [Haryana Local Law] ‘Pre-emption’ gives a co-sharer/tenant the right to:

• A. Evict
• B. Substitute himself as purchaser of the sold land
• C. Sublet
• D. Mortgage

Q91. [Haryana Local Law] The record of possession/cultivation entries in Haryana is the:

• A. Jamabandi
• B. Girdawari
• C. Both jamabandi and girdawari
• D. FIR

Q92. [Haryana Local Law] Rent-eviction disputes in Haryana are decided by the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Rent Controller
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Sessions Court

Q93. [Haryana Local Law] Excise/liquor regulation in Haryana is under the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. Punjab Excise Act, 1914 (as applicable)
• C. Courts Act
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q94. [Haryana Local Law] A ‘girdawar’ (kanungo) supervises:

• A. Courts
• B. Patwaris in a circle
• C. Police
• D. Advocates

Q95. [Haryana Local Law] The High Court common to Haryana also serves:

• A. Delhi & UP
• B. Punjab & the UT of Chandigarh
• C. Rajasthan
• D. HP

Q96. [Haryana Local Law] Village common land management in Haryana vests, subject to the Act, in the:

• A. Collector
• B. Gram Panchayat
• C. Rent Controller
• D. Board

Q97. [Haryana Local Law] Mutation (intkaal) entries in Haryana are:

• A. Title-conferring
• B. Fiscal, rebuttable, not title-conferring
• C. Conclusive
• D. Decrees

Q98. [Haryana Local Law] Administrative control over Haryana’s subordinate courts vests in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Punjab & Haryana High Court (Art.235)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector

Q99. [Haryana Local Law] ‘Shamilat deh’ land is:

• A. Private farm
• B. Village common land
• C. Forest
• D. Government office

Q100. [Haryana Local Law] Eviction on the ground of the tenant’s building becoming unsafe is a ground under the:

• A. Pre-emption Act
• B. East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act
• C. Courts Act
• D. Panchayat Act