Rajasthan (RHC) District Judge — Prelims Pattern Mock 3 (100 Questions)

Q1. [BNS 2023] ‘Attempt’ becomes punishable when the act moves beyond:

• A. Intention
• B. Mere preparation towards commission
• C. Motive
• D. Desire

Q2. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal conspiracy’ — for offences punishable with under 2 years, an act besides the agreement:

• A. Not required
• B. Is required
• C. Is optional
• D. Bars the charge

Q3. [BNS 2023] ‘Wrongful restraint’ vs ‘wrongful confinement’ — restraint stops movement in:

• A. All directions
• B. A particular direction
• C. No direction
• D. Only at night

Q4. [BNS 2023] ‘Extortion’ requires putting a person in fear of injury to:

• A. Only himself
• B. Himself or another, to dishonestly deliver property
• C. Property only
• D. Reputation only

Q5. [BNS 2023] ‘Robbery’ is ‘aggravated’ theft/extortion by:

• A. Deception
• B. Force or fear at the time
• C. A document
• D. Night

Q6. [BNS 2023] ‘Dacoity’ requires ___ or more persons conjointly committing/attempting robbery:

• A. Three
• B. Five
• C. Seven
• D. Ten

Q7. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal breach of trust’ requires:

• A. Taking
• B. Entrustment + dishonest misappropriation/conversion
• C. Deception
• D. Force

Q8. [BNS 2023] ‘Cheating’ requires deception inducing the person to:

• A. Pay tax
• B. Deliver property or do/omit an act causing harm
• C. Marry
• D. Vote

Q9. [BNS 2023] ‘Forgery’ requires making a false document with intent to cause:

• A. Profit
• B. Damage/injury, or to support a claim/title, etc.
• C. Marriage
• D. Nuisance

Q10. [BNS 2023] ‘Mischief’ requires causing wrongful loss/damage with:

• A. Good faith
• B. Intent/knowledge of likely wrongful loss/damage
• C. Negligence
• D. Consent

Q11. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal trespass’ requires entry with intent to:

• A. Reside
• B. Commit an offence or intimidate/insult/annoy
• C. Trade
• D. Farm

Q12. [BNS 2023] ‘Defamation’ — an imputation harming reputation, with exceptions such as:

• A. Any statement
• B. Truth for public good; fair comment on public conduct
• C. Malice
• D. Anonymity

Q13. [BNS 2023] ‘Criminal intimidation’ is a threat of injury to person, reputation or property to cause:

• A. Marriage
• B. Alarm / to do an act he is not bound to do
• C. Payment of tax
• D. A vote

Q14. [BNS 2023] ‘Abetment of suicide’ requires:

• A. Attempt
• B. Instigation/aiding the suicide
• C. Negligence
• D. A pact only

Q15. [BNS 2023] ‘Kidnapping from lawful guardianship’ — consent of the minor is:

• A. A defence
• B. Immaterial (guardian’s consent matters)
• C. Required
• D. A bar

Q16. [BNSS 2023] The ‘first information’ need not disclose:

• A. The offence
• B. Every detail/all facts of the case
• C. The informant
• D. The place

Q17. [BNSS 2023] Investigation includes proceeding to the spot, ascertaining facts, and:

• A. Trial
• B. Collection of evidence & arrest if needed
• C. Sentencing
• D. Appeal

Q18. [BNSS 2023] A police officer cannot compel a confession; a statement to police is:

• A. Substantive
• B. Usable only to contradict (limited)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Inadmissible entirely

Q19. [BNSS 2023] Custodial interrogation beyond 24 hours needs:

• A. Bail
• B. A remand order (police/judicial custody)
• C. An FIR
• D. A charge

Q20. [BNSS 2023] ‘Judicial custody’ means the accused is in the custody of the:

• A. Police
• B. Court (jail)
• C. Prosecutor
• D. Complainant

Q21. [BNSS 2023] A ‘closure/final report’ opposing prosecution can be rejected by the Magistrate who may:

• A. Do nothing
• B. Take cognizance / order further investigation
• C. Convict
• D. Acquit

Q22. [BNSS 2023] The accused is entitled to copies of the police report and documents under:

• A. No provision
• B. Old s.207/208 (now BNSS)
• C. Only at trial
• D. Only in appeal

Q23. [BNSS 2023] A charge can be added/altered and, if so, the accused may be:

• A. Convicted at once
• B. Given a chance to recall witnesses
• C. Discharged
• D. Sentenced

Q24. [BNSS 2023] ‘Autrefois acquit/convict’ bars a second trial for the:

• A. Different offence
• B. Same offence on the same facts
• C. Any offence
• D. A civil claim

Q25. [BNSS 2023] A Sessions trial commences with:

• A. Charge
• B. Opening of the prosecution case after charge is framed
• C. Judgment
• D. Bail

Q26. [BNSS 2023] In a warrant case on police report, evidence for prosecution is taken before:

• A. Charge
• B. After charge, the accused is examined
• C. Judgment
• D. Appeal

Q27. [BNSS 2023] A summons case can be converted to a warrant case if the offence is:

• A. Petty
• B. Punishable with more than 2 years/appears grave
• C. Compounded
• D. Withdrawn

Q28. [BNSS 2023] The accused’s statement under old s.313 is:

• A. On oath
• B. Not on oath (to explain incriminating circumstances)
• C. Conclusive
• D. Evidence for prosecution

Q29. [BNSS 2023] A pre-sentence hearing after conviction is intended to:

• A. Retry
• B. Hear the accused on the quantum of sentence
• C. Grant bail
• D. Appeal

Q30. [BNSS 2023] The ‘proclamation and attachment’ remedy targets an:

• A. Witness
• B. Absconding accused
• C. Complainant
• D. Approver

Q31. [BNSS 2023] ‘Bail bond’ with sureties ensures the accused’s:

• A. Guilt
• B. Appearance/attendance
• C. Conviction
• D. Acquittal

Q32. [BNSS 2023] Cancellation of bail is possible on:

• A. No ground
• B. Tampering/threat to witnesses/misuse of liberty
• C. Only fresh FIR
• D. Only conviction

Q33. [BNSS 2023] A victim has a statutory right to engage an advocate to:

• A. Prosecute alone
• B. Assist the prosecution
• C. Judge
• D. Investigate

Q34. [BNSS 2023] ‘Compounding’ extinguishes the offence and results in:

• A. Conviction
• B. Acquittal of the accused
• C. Discharge only
• D. Retrial

Q35. [BNSS 2023] ‘Withdrawal from prosecution’ before charge results in:

• A. Conviction
• B. Discharge
• C. Acquittal
• D. Retrial

Q36. [BNSS 2023] The maximum sentence a Chief Judicial Magistrate can pass is:

• A. 3 years
• B. 7 years
• C. Life
• D. Death

Q37. [BNSS 2023] An offence is ‘non-bailable’ when:

• A. Bail is a right
• B. Bail is discretionary (not a matter of right)
• C. No bail ever
• D. Only HC bail

Q38. [BNSS 2023] A person released on ‘default/statutory bail’ can later be:

• A. Never arrested
• B. Re-arrested on filing charge-sheet only with fresh grounds
• C. Convicted at once
• D. Discharged

Q39. [BNSS 2023] ‘Sanction’ to prosecute a public servant (acts in official duty) protects:

• A. The complainant
• B. The public servant from frivolous prosecution
• C. The police
• D. The court

Q40. [BNSS 2023] An ‘inquiry’ by a Magistrate precedes:

• A. Nothing
• B. Trial (to decide whether to proceed)
• C. Appeal
• D. Execution

Q41. [Constitution] The idea of the Preamble was borrowed from the Constitution of:

• A. UK
• B. USA
• C. Ireland
• D. Canada

Q42. [Constitution] Directive Principles were borrowed from:

• A. USA
• B. Ireland
• C. UK
• D. Canada

Q43. [Constitution] Fundamental Rights were inspired by the Constitution of:

• A. USA
• B. Ireland
• C. UK
• D. Australia

Q44. [Constitution] ‘Procedure established by law’ was borrowed from:

• A. USA
• B. Japan
• C. UK
• D. Canada

Q45. [Constitution] The Concurrent List idea was borrowed from:

• A. USA
• B. Australia
• C. Canada
• D. Ireland

Q46. [Constitution] Emergency provisions were influenced by the Constitution of:

• A. Weimar Germany
• B. USA
• C. UK
• D. Ireland

Q47. [Constitution] ‘Amendment of the Constitution’ procedure was influenced by:

• A. USA
• B. South Africa
• C. UK
• D. Ireland

Q48. [Constitution] The Rajya Sabha represents the:

• A. People
• B. States/Union Territories
• C. Districts
• D. Panchayats

Q49. [Constitution] The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha (as per the Constitution) is:

• A. 500
• B. 545
• C. 550
• D. 552

Q50. [Constitution] A Constitutional Amendment affecting federal features needs ratification by:

• A. No State
• B. Half the State Legislatures
• C. All States
• D. Two-thirds States

Q51. [Constitution] The ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ limits the power under:

• A. Art.13
• B. Art.32
• C. Art.368
• D. Art.245

Q52. [Constitution] Judicial review of the Ninth Schedule laws (post-24 April 1973) was held in:

• A. Golaknath
• B. I.R. Coelho
• C. Kesavananda
• D. Minerva Mills

Q53. [Constitution] ‘Reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental freedoms are tested for:

• A. Arbitrariness only
• B. Proportionality & reasonableness
• C. Popularity
• D. Cost

Q54. [Constitution] The ‘doctrine of proportionality’ in India is applied to:

• A. Only tax
• B. Restrictions on rights & administrative action
• C. Bail
• D. Contracts

Q55. [Constitution] Article 21A (right to education) was inserted by the:

• A. 42nd
• B. 44th
• C. 86th
• D. 93rd

Q56. [Constitution] The ‘Right to Education Act’ operationalising Art.21A came in:

• A. 2005
• B. 2009
• C. 2013
• D. 2019

Q57. [Constitution] ‘Equality’ under Art.14 forbids:

• A. All classification
• B. Class legislation, permits reasonable classification
• C. All laws
• D. Reservation

Q58. [Constitution] Doctrine of ‘legitimate expectation’ is a facet of:

• A. Art.19
• B. Art.14 (non-arbitrariness/fairness)
• C. Art.25
• D. Art.300A

Q59. [Constitution] ‘Manifest arbitrariness’ as a ground to strike down laws was affirmed in:

• A. Shayara Bano
• B. Gopalan
• C. ADM Jabalpur
• D. Golaknath

Q60. [Constitution] Article 32 cannot be suspended except:

• A. Never
• B. During a national emergency (Art.359, with limits)
• C. Anytime
• D. By Parliament

Q61. [Constitution] The Governor is appointed by the:

• A. State legislature
• B. President
• C. Chief Minister
• D. Parliament

Q62. [Constitution] ‘Discretionary powers’ of the Governor include:

• A. None
• B. Reservation of a Bill for the President, appointing CM in a hung house
• C. All powers
• D. Only ceremonial

Q63. [Constitution] The Advocate-General is the highest law officer of the:

• A. Union
• B. State
• C. District
• D. High Court

Q64. [Constitution] Money Bills cannot be introduced in the:

• A. Lok Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha
• C. Either House
• D. Joint sitting

Q65. [Constitution] A ‘Financial Emergency’ has never been declared in India and is under:

• A. Art.352
• B. Art.356
• C. Art.360
• D. Art.365

Q66. [Constitution] The 44th Amendment made Art.20 & 21 non-suspendable even during:

• A. No emergency
• B. Emergency
• C. Amendment
• D. War

Q67. [Constitution] ‘Doctrine of severability’ saves the ___ part of a law:

• A. Void
• B. Valid
• C. Whole
• D. None

Q68. [Constitution] ‘Doctrine of eclipse’ revives a pre-constitutional law upon:

• A. Repeal
• B. Removal of the inconsistency (amendment)
• C. Ordinance
• D. Never

Q69. [Constitution] The power of the President to return a Bill (except Money Bill) for reconsideration is a:

• A. Pocket veto
• B. Suspensive veto
• C. Absolute veto
• D. No veto

Q70. [Constitution] ‘Pocket veto’ means the President:

• A. Rejects
• B. Neither assents nor returns (indefinite)
• C. Signs
• D. Returns

Q71. [Contract] An agreement enforceable by law is a contract; enforceability requires:

• A. Only offer
• B. The s.10 essentials (consent, consideration, capacity, lawful object)
• C. Writing
• D. Registration

Q72. [Contract] A ‘void agreement’ is one:

• A. Enforceable
• B. Not enforceable by law (s.2(g))
• C. Voidable
• D. Contingent

Q73. [Contract] ‘Executed’ vs ‘executory’ consideration — executed means:

• A. Future
• B. Consideration already given
• C. Illegal
• D. Past

Q74. [Contract] Consideration at the desire of the promisor may move from:

• A. Only promisee
• B. Promisee or any other person
• C. Only third party
• D. Stranger only

Q75. [Contract] A promise to pay a time-barred debt (in writing, signed) is:

• A. Void
• B. A valid contract (s.25(3))
• C. Voidable
• D. Unlawful

Q76. [Contract] An agreement in restraint of trade is void except:

• A. No exceptions
• B. Sale of goodwill / statutory exceptions
• C. Always
• D. For companies

Q77. [Contract] ‘Uberrimae fidei’ (utmost good faith) contracts include:

• A. Sale
• B. Insurance contracts
• C. Lease
• D. Loan

Q78. [Contract] A contract obtained by ‘undue influence’ is:

• A. Void
• B. Voidable at the option of the party influenced
• C. Valid
• D. Illegal

Q79. [Contract] Where consent is caused by fraud, the contract is voidable, but if the party could discover truth with ordinary diligence:

• A. Still voidable
• B. Not voidable
• C. Void
• D. Illegal

Q80. [Contract] ‘Novation’ requires:

• A. Breach
• B. A new contract substituted with consent
• C. Frustration
• D. Rescission by one

Q81. [Contract] ‘Remission’ (s.63) allows the promisee to:

• A. Demand more
• B. Dispense with or remit performance
• C. Rescind
• D. Assign

Q82. [Contract] Time as the essence of a contract — if not the essence, delay makes the contract:

• A. Void
• B. Not voidable, but damages for delay claimable
• C. Frustrated
• D. Illegal

Q83. [Contract] In a contract of guarantee, misrepresentation by the creditor makes the guarantee:

• A. Valid
• B. Invalid (s.142)
• C. Void ab initio
• D. Contingent

Q84. [Contract] A ‘contract of insurance’ on life is not a wagering agreement because of:

• A. No consideration
• B. Insurable interest
• C. Public policy only
• D. No risk

Q85. [Contract] ‘Frustration’ does not apply where the contract provides for the event or the impossibility is:

• A. Objective
• B. Self-induced
• C. Legal
• D. Temporary

Q86. [Rajasthan Local Law] Rural local self-government in Rajasthan is under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994
• C. Rent Act
• D. Land Revenue Act

Q87. [Rajasthan Local Law] Time-bound public services in Rajasthan are guaranteed by the:

• A. Colonisation Act
• B. Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011
• C. Tenancy Act
• D. Rent Act

Q88. [Rajasthan Local Law] A revenue officer in charge of a district’s revenue administration in Rajasthan is the:

• A. Tehsildar
• B. Collector
• C. Patwari
• D. Girdawar

Q89. [Rajasthan Local Law] ‘Patwari’ and ‘Girdawar’ (Kanungo) are:

• A. Judges
• B. Village/circle revenue officials
• C. Advocates
• D. Police

Q90. [Rajasthan Local Law] Land settlement and record of rights in Rajasthan are prepared under the:

• A. Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956
• C. Rent Act
• D. Colonisation Act

Q91. [Rajasthan Local Law] The Rajasthan Sati (Prevention) Act deals with:

• A. Rent
• B. Prohibition of sati and its glorification
• C. Land
• D. Bail

Q92. [Rajasthan Local Law] A ‘khudkasht’ vs ‘khatedari’ — khudkasht is the landholder’s:

• A. Tenant land
• B. Self-cultivated home farm
• C. Common land
• D. Government land

Q93. [Rajasthan Local Law] Allotment of land to landless persons in Rajasthan is under rules framed under the:

• A. Rent Act
• B. Land Revenue/Colonisation Acts
• C. Tenancy Act only
• D. Panchayat Act

Q94. [Rajasthan Local Law] Bar of civil jurisdiction over tenancy matters channels disputes to the:

• A. Civil court
• B. Revenue courts
• C. High Court
• D. Consumer forum

Q95. [Rajasthan Local Law] The Rajasthan High Court’s benches are at Jodhpur (principal) and:

• A. Ajmer
• B. Jaipur
• C. Udaipur
• D. Kota

Q96. [Rajasthan Local Law] Conversion of use of agricultural land (90A/90B type provisions) is under the:

• A. Rent Act
• B. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act
• C. Tenancy Act
• D. Panchayat Act

Q97. [Rajasthan Local Law] ‘Jamabandi’ is renewed/revised periodically to update the:

• A. FIR
• B. Record of rights
• C. Charge
• D. Decree

Q98. [Rajasthan Local Law] Administrative control over Rajasthan’s subordinate judiciary vests in the:

• A. State Government
• B. Rajasthan High Court (Art.235)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Collector

Q99. [Rajasthan Local Law] A ‘gair khatedar’ tenant has rights that are comparatively:

• A. Stronger
• B. Weaker/limited (non-transferable)
• C. Absolute
• D. Ownership

Q100. [Rajasthan Local Law] Recovery of Government dues as arrears of land revenue is a:

• A. Civil suit
• B. Coercive statutory process
• C. Crime
• D. Gift