Haryana Superior Judicial Service (HSJS) — Prelims Pattern Mock 5 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Order 2 Rule 2 CPC requires a plaintiff to include the whole of the claim in respect of a cause of action. If he omits or relinquishes a portion of his claim, he shall:

• A. Be permitted to sue for it in a separate suit with leave
• B. Not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished
• C. Be entitled to amend the plaint at any time
• D. Recover it only as mesne profits

Q2. [CPC] A plaint shall be rejected under Order 7 Rule 11(d) CPC where:

• A. The relief claimed is undervalued and not corrected
• B. The suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
• C. The plaintiff fails to produce documents relied upon
• D. The defendant raises a plea of res judicata

Q3. [CPC] Interrogatories under Order 11 Rule 1 CPC may be delivered by a party for the examination of the opposite parties, but such interrogatories:

• A. May relate to any matter whatever
• B. Shall relate to matters in question in the suit
• C. May be scandalous or oppressive if relevant
• D. Need not be answered on affidavit

Q4. [CPC] Under Order 16 Rule 1(3) CPC, a party may, with the leave of the court, call a witness (other than one so listed) if he:

• A. Shows sufficient cause for the omission to mention such witness in the list
• B. Merely deposits additional process fee
• C. Files a fresh plaint
• D. Obtains the consent of the opposite party

Q5. [CPC] Under Order 21 Rule 58 CPC, where an objection is made to the attachment of any property on the ground that it is not liable to attachment, the executing court shall:

• A. Refer the objector to a separate suit in all cases
• B. Proceed to adjudicate upon the claim or objection in accordance with the provisions of that rule
• C. Dismiss the objection summarily
• D. Raise the attachment automatically

Q6. [CPC] Under Order 22 Rule 4A CPC, where in any suit it appears to the court that there is no legal representative of a deceased defendant, the court may:

• A. Abate the suit automatically
• B. Proceed in the absence of a person representing the estate, or appoint some person to represent the estate
• C. Substitute the Public Prosecutor
• D. Dismiss the suit for want of parties

Q7. [CPC] The ouster of the jurisdiction of a civil court under Section 9 CPC by a statute is not to be readily inferred; the principle is that:

• A. A statute ousting civil court jurisdiction must be strictly construed and exclusion must be explicit or clearly implied
• B. Any tribunal automatically ousts civil court jurisdiction
• C. Ouster is presumed whenever a special forum exists
• D. Civil courts never lose jurisdiction over civil disputes

Q8. [CPC] Under Sections 75 to 78 CPC and Order 26, a commission may be issued by the court to:

• A. Only examine witnesses residing within the local limits
• B. Examine any person, make a local investigation, examine or adjust accounts, or make a partition, among other purposes
• C. Decide the suit on merits
• D. Enforce the decree by attachment

Q9. [CPC] Under Section 24 CPC, the power of the High Court or the District Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it or a subordinate court may be exercised:

• A. Only on the application of a party after notice
• B. On the application of any party or of its own motion
• C. Only with the consent of both parties
• D. Only where the two courts are in different States

Q10. [CPC] Under Section 21(1) CPC, an objection as to the place of suing shall not be allowed by any appellate or revisional court unless such objection was taken in the court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity and there has been:

• A. A consequent failure of justice
• B. Any error in the decree
• C. A change in the pecuniary value
• D. An amendment of the plaint

Q11. [CPC] Under Section 96(4) CPC (as amended), no appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognisable by Courts of Small Causes when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

• A. Three thousand rupees
• B. Ten thousand rupees
• C. Twenty-five thousand rupees
• D. One lakh rupees

Q12. [Limitation] Under Section 15(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, in computing the period of limitation for any suit or application for the execution of a decree, the institution or execution of which has been stayed by an injunction or order, the time of the continuance of the injunction or order shall be:

• A. Included
• B. Excluded, together with the day on which it was issued and the day on which it was withdrawn
• C. Excluded only if the stay exceeded six months
• D. Counted as fresh limitation

Q13. [Limitation] Under Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where payment on account of a debt or of interest on a legacy is made before the expiration of the prescribed period, a fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the payment was made, provided that:

• A. An acknowledgment of the payment appears in the handwriting of, or in a writing signed by, the person making it
• B. The payment is made by cheque only
• C. The creditor issues a receipt
• D. The debt exceeds one thousand rupees

Q14. [Limitation] Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title has a limitation of twelve years, computed from the point of time when:

• A. The plaintiff’s title accrues
• B. The possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff
• C. The plaintiff is first dispossessed
• D. The suit is instituted

Q15. [Specific Relief] Under Section 6(4) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, nothing in Section 6 shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to the property and to recover possession thereof. This preserves:

• A. A summary remedy alone
• B. The right to file a regular suit on title notwithstanding a Section 6 decree
• C. An appeal against the Section 6 decree
• D. A right of revision only

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as substituted in 2018), the following contract cannot be specifically enforced, namely, a contract:

• A. For the sale of immovable property
• B. The performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
• C. For the transfer of shares
• D. To pay a liquidated sum of money

Q17. [Specific Relief] Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (inserted in 2018) provides that no injunction shall be granted by a court in a suit under the Act involving a contract relating to an infrastructure project specified in the Schedule, where granting the injunction would:

• A. Cause loss to the contractor only
• B. Cause impediment or delay in the progress or completion of such infrastructure project
• C. Reduce the profits of the developer
• D. Affect the environment

Q18. [Specific Relief] Under Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, rescission of a contract may be adjudged or refused by the court, and rescission may be granted where:

• A. The contract is voidable or terminable by the plaintiff
• B. The plaintiff has ratified the contract
• C. The plaintiff is himself in default
• D. Third parties have acquired rights in good faith for value

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted, among other cases:

• A. To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit in which the injunction is sought, unless to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings
• B. To restrain a continuing nuisance
• C. To protect a legal right
• D. To prevent a breach of contract

Q20. [BNS 2023] Where one act is abetted and a probable consequence causes a different effect, the abettor is liable for

• A. Only the effect he intended
• B. The effect actually caused as if he had abetted that effect
• C. Nothing beyond the abetment
• D. Half the punishment

Q21. [BNS 2023] A person is said to have ‘reason to believe’ a thing under BNS if he has

• A. Mere suspicion of it
• B. Sufficient cause to believe that thing but not otherwise
• C. Absolute certainty of it
• D. Been told by another

Q22. [BNS 2023] Culpable homicide is not murder where the person killed, being above eighteen years of age, suffers death or takes the risk with

• A. His own free consent
• B. The consent of his family
• C. No consent
• D. Consent obtained by fraud

Q23. [BNS 2023] Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means under BNS refers to hurt caused by an instrument for

• A. Shooting, stabbing or cutting, or any instrument likely to cause death
• B. Any blunt object only
• C. Poison exclusively
• D. Words alone

Q24. [BNS 2023] ‘Wrongful restraint’ under BNS is voluntarily obstructing a person so as to prevent him from proceeding in any direction in which

• A. He is prohibited from proceeding
• B. He has a right to proceed
• C. A public servant directs
• D. The obstructor pleases

Q25. [BNS 2023] ‘Abduction’ under BNS is committed when a person by force compels, or by deceitful means induces, another to

• A. Go from any place
• B. Consent to marriage
• C. Sign a document
• D. Confess an offence

Q26. [BNS 2023] ‘Theft’ under BNS requires a dishonest intention to take movable property out of the possession of any person

• A. With his consent
• B. Without that person’s consent
• C. Only at night
• D. Only for gain

Q27. [BNS 2023] ‘Dacoity’ under BNS is committed when the number of persons conjointly committing or attempting robbery is

• A. Two or more
• B. Three or more
• C. Five or more
• D. Ten or more

Q28. [BNS 2023] ‘Cheating’ under BNS is deceiving a person and thereby fraudulently or dishonestly inducing him to deliver property, or to do or omit something he would not otherwise do, which act or omission causes or is likely to cause

• A. Only mental distress
• B. Damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property
• C. A breach of contract only
• D. A public nuisance

Q29. [BNS 2023] ‘Lurking house-trespass’ under BNS is house-trespass having taken precautions to conceal such trespass from someone who has a right to exclude, distinguishing it from ordinary house-trespass by the element of

• A. Force
• B. Concealment
• C. Night
• D. Number of persons

Q30. [BNS 2023] ‘Petty organised crime’ under BNS is aimed at organised gangs committing

• A. Terrorist acts
• B. Theft, snatching, cheating and similar acts causing general feeling of insecurity
• C. Murder only
• D. Sedition

Q31. [BNS 2023] BNS provides ‘community service’ as a form of punishment for certain offences, which the Explanation describes as work the court may order the convict to perform

• A. For which he is paid wages
• B. As a form of punishment benefitting the community and for which he is not entitled to remuneration
• C. Only during imprisonment
• D. Only for economic offences

Q32. [BNSS 2023] BNSS expressly permits information about a cognizable offence to be given by electronic communication, which shall be taken on record on being

• A. Merely received
• B. Signed within three days by the person giving it
• C. Verified by a Magistrate
• D. Attested by two witnesses

Q33. [BNSS 2023] When a person is arrested and there are reasonable grounds that an examination of his body will afford evidence, BNSS authorises examination by

• A. Any police officer
• B. A registered medical practitioner at the request of a police officer
• C. A Magistrate
• D. A private doctor of the accused’s choice only

Q34. [BNSS 2023] ‘Default bail’ under BNSS accrues to an accused where investigation is not completed within the prescribed period, entitling him to be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail, the period being ninety days where the offence is punishable with

• A. Imprisonment up to three years
• B. Death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for not less than ten years
• C. Only fine
• D. Two years

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, during the pendency of a maintenance proceeding, the Magistrate may order the person against whom the application is made to pay

• A. A lump sum only
• B. Interim maintenance and the expenses of the proceeding
• C. Nothing until final order
• D. Only court fees

Q36. [BNSS 2023] Where an offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, the Magistrate taking cognizance under BNSS shall

• A. Try it himself
• B. Commit the case to the Court of Session after complying with the requirements
• C. Dismiss the complaint
• D. Grant bail and close the case

Q37. [BNSS 2023] Plea bargaining under BNSS is not available where the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding

• A. Three years
• B. Five years
• C. Seven years
• D. Ten years

Q38. [BNSS 2023] The revisional jurisdiction under BNSS empowers the High Court or Sessions Judge to call for and examine the record of any proceeding to satisfy itself as to the

• A. Guilt of the accused afresh
• B. Correctness, legality or propriety of any finding, sentence or order
• C. Credibility of witnesses
• D. Quantum of court fee

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when there is a question whether an act was accidental or intentional, the fact that such act formed part of a series of similar occurrences is relevant to show

• A. Motive alone
• B. Bad reputation
• C. Character of the accused
• D. The existence of a system or plan

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a confession made to a police officer is

• A. Fully admissible
• B. Admissible only in sessions trials
• C. Admissible if voluntary
• D. Not to be proved against the accused

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] The evidentiary value of a confession by a co-accused, as consistently held, is that it

• A. Is substantive evidence sufficient by itself
• B. Binds the maker only
• C. Can only lend assurance to other evidence and is not substantive
• D. Must be corroborated by another confession

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, opinion on the effect of any usage or custom, and on the tenets of any body, when the court has to form an opinion thereon, is furnished by

• A. Persons who would be likely to know of its existence
• B. Any witness
• C. Only a judge
• D. Only a Gazetted officer

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, where a document purporting to be thirty years old is produced from proper custody, the court may presume that the signature and every other part of it is

• A. In the handwriting of the person by whom it purports to be written and duly executed
• B. Forged
• C. Irrelevant
• D. Inadmissible

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the burden of proof as to any particular fact lies on

• A. The court
• B. Always the plaintiff
• C. The witness
• D. That person who wishes the court to believe in its existence

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when one person has by declaration, act or omission intentionally caused another to believe a thing and act on that belief, they cannot in a suit between them deny the truth of that thing. This is the doctrine of

• A. Estoppel
• B. Res judicata
• C. Merger
• D. Waiver

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, no one shall be permitted to give evidence derived from unpublished official records relating to affairs of State except with permission of

• A. The trial court
• B. The officer at the head of the department concerned
• C. The complainant
• D. Any Gazetted officer

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, leading questions must not, if objected to by the adverse party, be asked in

• A. Cross-examination
• B. Any examination
• C. Examination-in-chief or re-examination, except with the court’s permission
• D. Re-examination only

Q48. [Constitution] For determining whether a body is an ‘other authority’ within the meaning of the State under Article 12, courts apply the test of

• A. Number of employees
• B. Date of incorporation
• C. Profit motive
• D. Deep and pervasive State control and functional/financial dominance

Q49. [Constitution] The reservation for Economically Weaker Sections was introduced by which constitutional amendment

• A. The 102nd Amendment
• B. The 103rd Amendment
• C. The 93rd Amendment
• D. The 77th Amendment

Q50. [Constitution] The guidelines requiring arrest memos and informing of grounds of arrest, evolved to safeguard personal liberty, were laid down in

• A. Sunil Batra
• B. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
• C. Hussainara Khatoon
• D. A.K. Roy

Q51. [Constitution] The test to determine whether a religious practice is protected under Articles 25-26 is whether it constitutes an

• A. Old custom
• B. Popular ritual
• C. Essential religious practice of the faith
• D. Optional observance

Q52. [Constitution] In writ jurisdiction, the existence of an adequate alternative remedy is

• A. An absolute bar to a writ
• B. Irrelevant always
• C. A self-imposed restraint on discretion, not an absolute bar, subject to recognised exceptions
• D. A ground to transfer the case

Q53. [Constitution] The anti-defection provisions disqualifying members on grounds of defection are contained in

• A. The Ninth Schedule
• B. The Seventh Schedule
• C. The Eighth Schedule
• D. The Tenth Schedule

Q54. [Constitution] Under Article 234, appointments of persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a State are made by the Governor in accordance with rules made after consultation with

• A. The Advocate General
• B. The State Public Service Commission and the High Court
• C. The Cabinet
• D. Parliament

Q55. [Constitution] The 44th Amendment provided that a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 shall not be issued unless the decision of the Union Cabinet is communicated to the President in

• A. Oral form
• B. A Gazette notification
• C. Writing
• D. A parliamentary resolution

Q56. [Constitution] The doctrine of colourable legislation means that what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly, and is concerned with the

• A. Motive of the legislature
• B. Number of votes
• C. Wisdom of the policy
• D. Competence of the legislature to enact the law

Q57. [Constitution] Under the pleasure doctrine in Article 310, civil servants of the Union hold office during the pleasure of the President, subject to the safeguards in

• A. Article 309
• B. Article 315
• C. Article 312
• D. Article 311

Q58. [Contract] A standing offer or a tender to supply goods as and when required is best regarded as:

• A. A concluded contract for the whole quantity
• B. A continuing offer accepted each time an order is placed
• C. An irrevocable offer once submitted
• D. A mere invitation to treat throughout

Q59. [Contract] Where several distinct objects, some lawful and some unlawful, are not severable and form single consideration, Section 24 provides the agreement is:

• A. Valid to the lawful extent
• B. Void
• C. Voidable
• D. Enforceable if the lawful part predominates

Q60. [Contract] Under Section 16(3), a presumption of undue influence arises and the burden shifts to the dominant party to prove the transaction was not induced thereby where the person in a position to dominate:

• A. Merely made a profit
• B. Enters into a transaction which is unconscionable
• C. Was older than the other
• D. Acted through an agent

Q61. [Contract] Under Section 19A, where consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the contract is voidable and may be set aside:

• A. Only absolutely
• B. Either absolutely or upon such terms as the court deems just
• C. Only on payment of damages
• D. Only within thirty days

Q62. [Contract] Under Section 31, a contingent contract to do or not to do something if an uncertain future event happens can be enforced by law:

• A. Immediately on formation
• B. Only when that event has happened
• C. Whether or not the event happens
• D. Only if the event is certain

Q63. [Contract] Where a person lawfully does anything for another not intending to do so gratuitously, and the other enjoys the benefit thereof, Section 70 obliges the latter to:

• A. Pay liquidated damages
• B. Compensate or restore the thing done or delivered
• C. Return double the value
• D. Do nothing

Q64. [Contract] Under Section 45, where a promise is made to several joint promisees, in the absence of contrary intention the right to claim performance rests:

• A. With any one of them alone
• B. With all of them jointly during their joint lives
• C. With the eldest only
• D. With the survivors even before others die

Q65. [Contract] A contract may be discharged by novation, rescission or alteration under Section 62; where the parties agree to substitute a new contract, the original contract:

• A. Continues alongside the new one
• B. Need not be performed
• C. Is merely suspended
• D. Revives on breach of the new one

Q66. [Contract] Under Section 74, where a sum is named in the contract as payable on breach, the aggrieved party is entitled to reasonable compensation not exceeding that sum, whether or not actual damage is proved, following:

• A. Hadley v Baxendale
• B. Fateh Chand v Balkishan Das and Kailash Nath v DDA
• C. Mohori Bibee v Dharmodas Ghose
• D. Balfour v Balfour

Q67. [Contract] Under Section 141, a surety is entitled to the benefit of every security which the creditor has against the principal debtor; if the creditor loses or parts with such security without the surety’s consent, the surety is:

• A. Fully liable still
• B. Discharged to the extent of the value of the security
• C. Liable only for interest
• D. Bound to furnish new security

Q68. [Property] Under Section 6(e), a mere right to sue is:

• A. Transferable as an actionable claim
• B. Not transferable
• C. Transferable to any assignee
• D. Transferable only to a relative

Q69. [Property] Under Section 12, a condition making an interest determinable on the transferee becoming insolvent or attempting to alienate is void; but this does not affect a condition in:

• A. A sale deed
• B. A lease providing that on such event the interest shall cease
• C. A gift deed
• D. A mortgage deed

Q70. [Property] Under Section 14, the rule against perpetuity requires that no transfer can operate to create an interest to take effect after the lifetime of one or more living persons and the minority of a person who:

• A. Is already born and adult
• B. Shall be in existence at the expiration of that period
• C. Is a public officer
• D. Is unborn and never conceived

Q71. [Property] Under Section 41, where with consent of persons interested a person is the ostensible owner and transfers the property for consideration, the transfer is not voidable on the ground the transferor was not authorised, provided the transferee:

• A. Paid market value
• B. Acted in good faith after taking reasonable care to ascertain the transferor’s power
• C. Registered promptly
• D. Was a relative

Q72. [Property] Under Section 53, every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor is:

• A. Void
• B. Voidable at the option of any creditor so defeated or delayed
• C. Valid
• D. Void only if unregistered

Q73. [Property] A mortgage where the mortgagor delivers possession and authorises the mortgagee to retain possession until payment and to receive rents in lieu of interest or principal is a:

• A. Simple mortgage
• B. Usufructuary mortgage
• C. English mortgage
• D. Mortgage by conditional sale

Q74. [Property] Under Section 81, the doctrine of marshalling securities entitles a subsequent mortgagee to require that the prior mortgagee satisfy his debt out of properties not mortgaged to the subsequent mortgagee, so far as this can be done without:

• A. Any restriction
• B. Prejudicing the prior mortgagee or persons who acquired an interest for consideration
• C. Court approval
• D. Notice to the mortgagor

Q75. [Property] Under Section 106, in the absence of a contract, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes is deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable by six months’ notice, whereas a lease for any other purpose is deemed to be:

• A. Permanent
• B. A lease from month to month terminable by fifteen days’ notice
• C. A yearly lease
• D. Terminable at will without notice

Q76. [Property] Under Section 127, where a gift is in the form of a single transfer to the same person of several things of which one is burdened by an obligation and the others are not, the donee:

• A. May accept only the beneficial ones
• B. Can take nothing by the gift unless he accepts it fully including the onerous part
• C. Takes free of the burden
• D. Must pay for the burden separately

Q77. [Torts] Under the doctrine of inevitable accident, the defendant escapes liability where the harm

• A. was intended but excusable
• B. could not have been avoided by ordinary care and foresight
• C. was caused by the plaintiff’s negligence
• D. arose from a natural cause only

Q78. [Torts] The rule of last opportunity in contributory negligence means the party who

• A. first acted negligently is solely liable
• B. had the final chance to avoid the accident bears the loss
• C. suffered the greater injury recovers nothing
• D. did not insure is liable

Q79. [Torts] The rule in M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak) laid down that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity is under

• A. strict liability with Rylands exceptions
• B. absolute liability with no exceptions
• C. no liability if it took care
• D. liability only for intentional harm

Q80. [Torts] Claims for compensation arising out of motor accidents are adjudicated primarily by the

• A. civil court of first instance
• B. Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal
• C. consumer commission
• D. labour court

Q81. [Commercial] Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act raises a presumption that every negotiable instrument was made or drawn

• A. without consideration
• B. for consideration
• C. after dishonour
• D. as a gift

Q82. [Commercial] The doctrine that an arbitration clause survives even if the main contract is void treats the arbitration agreement as

• A. dependent on the main contract
• B. separable and independent
• C. void along with the contract
• D. incapable of enforcement

Q83. [Commercial] An appeal from an order refusing to set aside an arbitral award lies under

• A. Section 34
• B. Section 37
• C. Section 8
• D. Section 11

Q84. [Commercial] The order of priority of distribution of proceeds in liquidation under the Code, the waterfall mechanism, is set out in

• A. Section 14
• B. Section 31
• C. Section 52
• D. Section 53

Q85. [Commercial] Under the Indian Partnership Act 1932, an unregistered firm suffers the disability that it cannot sue to enforce a contractual right against a third party by virtue of

• A. Section 4
• B. Section 30
• C. Section 69
• D. Section 39

Q86. [Haryana Local Law] Under the Punjab Pre-emption Act, 1913 as applicable to Haryana, the right of pre-emption must exist at the date of sale and continue up to the date of the:

• A. Registration
• B. Decree
• C. FIR
• D. Mutation entry

Q87. [Haryana Local Law] Buildings/tenancies exempted from the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act (e.g., newly-constructed buildings for a statutory period) are governed instead by the:

• A. Rent Controller
• B. General law of landlord and tenant / Transfer of Property Act
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q88. [Haryana Local Law] The record-of-rights (jamabandi) in Haryana is ordinarily revised every:

• A. Year
• B. Four years
• C. Ten years
• D. Thirty years

Q89. [Haryana Local Law] Village common land (shamilat deh) in Haryana vests, subject to the Act, in the:

• A. Collector
• B. Gram Panchayat
• C. Rent Controller
• D. Board of Revenue

Q90. [Haryana Local Law] Appeals in ejectment/rent matters decided by the Rent Controller in Haryana lie to the:

• A. Civil Judge
• B. Appellate Authority (District Judge/notified officer)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. High Court directly

Q91. [Haryana Local Law] Occupancy tenants and their special rights of continued cultivation in Haryana are protected under the:

• A. Pre-emption Act
• B. Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. Consolidation Act

Q92. [Haryana Local Law] Mutation (intkaal) in the Haryana revenue records is essentially a fiscal entry that is:

• A. Conclusive of title
• B. Rebuttable and does not by itself confer title
• C. A decree
• D. A charge

Q93. [Haryana Local Law] Consolidation proceedings in Haryana are conducted by the:

• A. Rent Controller
• B. Consolidation Officer (with appeals up the consolidation hierarchy)
• C. Board of Revenue
• D. Civil Judge

Q94. [Haryana Local Law] Recovery of arrears of land revenue in Haryana proceeds under the machinery of the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887
• C. Pre-emption Act
• D. Consolidation Act

Q95. [Haryana Local Law] The regulation and licensing of residential and commercial colonies by private developers in Haryana is under the:

• A. Punjab Tenancy Act
• B. Haryana Development and Regulation of Urban Areas Act, 1975
• C. Pre-emption Act
• D. East Punjab Rent Act

Q96. [Haryana Local Law] A person aggrieved by a pre-emption decree in Haryana may raise the defence that the pre-emptor lost his superior right by:

• A. Paying the price
• B. An intervening improvement in the vendee’s status / loss of qualification
• C. Filing the suit
• D. Registration

Q97. [Haryana Local Law] Municipal governance in the larger urban local bodies of Haryana is under the:

• A. Punjab Land Revenue Act
• B. Haryana Municipal Corporation Act, 1994
• C. East Punjab Rent Act
• D. Pre-emption Act

Q98. [Haryana Local Law] Pecuniary jurisdiction and the powers of the District Judge and Additional District Judges in Haryana are regulated by the:

• A. East Punjab Rent Act
• B. Punjab Courts Act, 1918
• C. Pre-emption Act
• D. Punjab Tenancy Act

Q99. [Haryana Local Law] A ground of eviction under the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act that the building has become unsafe and requires reconstruction is available to the:

• A. Tenant
• B. Landlord
• C. Rent Controller suo motu
• D. State

Q100. [Haryana Local Law] Time-bound delivery of notified services to Haryana’s citizens with a penalty for default is guaranteed under the:

• A. Punjab Land Revenue Act
• B. Haryana Right to Service Act, 2014
• C. Punjab Courts Act
• D. HDRUA