Rajasthan (RHC) District Judge — Prelims Pattern Mock 5 (100 Questions)

Q1. [CPC] Where a person added as a defendant under Order 1 Rule 10 CPC objects that the suit against him is barred by limitation, the proceeding as against such newly added defendant shall, under Rule 10(5), be deemed to have begun:

• A. On the date of institution of the original suit
• B. On the date on which he is so made a party
• C. On the date of the first hearing
• D. On the date the plaint was presented

Q2. [CPC] Where a plaint is presented to a court which has no jurisdiction to entertain it, the proper course under Order 7 Rule 10 CPC is that the court shall:

• A. Reject the plaint outright
• B. Return the plaint to be presented to the proper court
• C. Dismiss the suit for want of jurisdiction
• D. Transfer the suit under Section 24

Q3. [CPC] Where a suit is dismissed under Order 9 Rule 8 CPC for the plaintiff’s default of appearance, the plaintiff is:

• A. Entitled to file a fresh suit on the same cause of action
• B. Precluded from bringing a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action
• C. Entitled to restoration only on payment of the defendant’s costs
• D. Permitted to appeal against the dismissal within 90 days

Q4. [CPC] Under Order 16 Rule 1 CPC, a party desiring to summon witnesses must present a list of witnesses whom he proposes to call, and obtain summonses, within:

• A. Fifteen days from the date on which issues are settled
• B. Thirty days after institution of the suit
• C. The period fixed by the court, not later than fifteen days after settlement of issues
• D. Seven days before the date fixed for evidence

Q5. [CPC] Under Order 21 Rule 32 CPC, where a decree for specific performance of a contract is not obeyed, the decree may be enforced against a judgment-debtor who has had an opportunity of obeying and has wilfully failed to obey, by:

• A. His detention in the civil prison, or by attachment of his property, or by both
• B. An award of damages only
• C. Cancellation of the underlying contract
• D. A fresh suit for specific performance

Q6. [CPC] Under Order 21 Rule 89 CPC, a person may apply to set aside a sale of immovable property in execution on depositing in court:

• A. Only the amount specified in the sale proclamation
• B. The amount for recovery of which the sale was ordered together with five per cent of the purchase-money for the purchaser
• C. The full market value of the property
• D. Twenty-five per cent of the decretal amount

Q7. [CPC] Under Section 9 CPC, the courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is:

• A. Beyond their pecuniary limits only
• B. Either expressly or impliedly barred
• C. Barred by res judicata alone
• D. Transferred to a tribunal by consent

Q8. [CPC] Section 35B CPC empowers the court, where a party obtains an adjournment causing delay, to order that party to pay to the other party the costs occasioned by the adjournment, and provides that payment of such costs:

• A. May be deferred until the final decree
• B. Shall be a condition precedent to the further prosecution of the suit or defence by the defaulting party
• C. Is discretionary and unenforceable
• D. Is recoverable only in execution of the decree

Q9. [CPC] Under Section 148A CPC, a person claiming a right to be heard in a proceeding that is instituted or is expected to be instituted may lodge a caveat, and such caveat shall remain in force for a period of:

• A. Sixty days from the date on which it was lodged
• B. Ninety days from the date on which it was lodged
• C. One hundred and eighty days from the date on which it was lodged
• D. One year from the date on which it was lodged

Q10. [CPC] Explanation to Section 20 CPC provides that a corporation shall be deemed to carry on business at its sole or principal office in India, or, in respect of any cause of action arising at any place where it has also a subordinate office:

• A. Only at the principal office
• B. At such place where the subordinate office is situate
• C. At the place where the plaintiff resides
• D. At the registered office of the plaintiff

Q11. [CPC] Under Order 8 Rule 5(1) CPC, every allegation of fact in the plaint, if not denied specifically or by necessary implication, or stated to be not admitted in the pleading of the defendant, shall be:

• A. Deemed to be denied
• B. Taken to be admitted, except as against a person under disability
• C. Referred to arbitration
• D. Struck off the record

Q12. [Limitation] Under Section 14(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, in computing the limitation for a suit, the time during which the plaintiff has been prosecuting with due diligence another civil proceeding relating to the same matter in issue shall be excluded, where that proceeding is prosecuted in good faith in a court which, from:

• A. Any cause whatsoever, is unable to entertain it
• B. Defect of jurisdiction or other cause of a like nature, is unable to entertain it
• C. Mere inconvenience of the parties, is transferred
• D. Delay of the registry, is stayed

Q13. [Limitation] Under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where before the expiration of the prescribed period an acknowledgment of liability in respect of a right has been made in writing signed by the party against whom the right is claimed, a fresh period of limitation:

• A. Never arises from acknowledgment
• B. Shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was so signed
• C. Runs only from the date of the original cause of action
• D. Requires part-payment in addition

Q14. [Limitation] Under Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation to obtain any declaration (for which no other period is provided) is three years, computed from the date when:

• A. The plaintiff acquires the right
• B. The right to sue first accrues
• C. The defendant denies the right in writing
• D. The suit is filed

Q15. [Specific Relief] Under Section 6(3) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, against an order or decree passed in a suit for possession under Section 6:

• A. An appeal and review both lie
• B. No appeal shall lie, nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed
• C. Only a review lies
• D. Only a revision lies

Q16. [Specific Relief] Under Section 11(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust:

• A. Cannot be specifically enforced
• B. Shall always be specifically enforced
• C. Is voidable at the option of the beneficiary only
• D. May be enforced with the court’s leave

Q17. [Specific Relief] Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as substituted in 2018) provides for substituted performance of contracts, entitling a party suffering a breach to have the contract performed by a third party or by his own agency, and to recover the expenses and costs from the party in breach, after giving notice in writing of not less than:

• A. Fifteen days
• B. Thirty days
• C. Forty-five days
• D. Sixty days

Q18. [Specific Relief] Under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, any person against whom a written instrument is void or voidable, and who has reasonable apprehension that such instrument, if left outstanding, may cause him serious injury, may sue to have it adjudged void or voidable, and the court may in its discretion:

• A. Award only damages
• B. So adjudge it and order it to be delivered up and cancelled
• C. Refer the instrument to arbitration
• D. Direct its registration

Q19. [Specific Relief] Under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a mandatory injunction to compel the performance of certain acts which the court is capable of enforcing may be granted where it is necessary to prevent the breach of an obligation, and the court, in its discretion, may:

• A. Only award damages instead
• B. Grant an injunction to prevent the breach complained of and also to compel performance of the requisite acts
• C. Order specific performance in every case
• D. Direct arbitration

Q20. [BNS 2023] When an act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act actually done in the same manner as if he had abetted it, provided

• A. The act done was a probable consequence of the abetment done under its influence
• B. He expressly authorised the different act
• C. The doer was a minor
• D. The victim consented

Q21. [BNS 2023] ‘Good faith’ under BNS means a thing done or believed

• A. With honest motive irrespective of care
• B. With due care and attention
• C. Without any inquiry
• D. In the interest of the State

Q22. [BNS 2023] The sudden fight exception to murder requires that the act be committed without premeditation in a sudden fight in the heat of passion upon a sudden quarrel and

• A. The offender having taken undue advantage or acted cruelly
• B. Without the offender having taken undue advantage or acted in a cruel manner
• C. The victim being unarmed
• D. A weapon being used

Q23. [BNS 2023] ‘Grievous hurt’ under BNS includes permanent privation of the sight of either eye, and also

• A. A simple bruise
• B. Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
• C. Temporary pain
• D. A minor cut

Q24. [BNS 2023] Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to deter a public servant from his duty is punishable because it

• A. Is a private wrong only
• B. Obstructs public functions and is aggravated
• C. Requires a weapon
• D. Needs the victim’s consent

Q25. [BNS 2023] Kidnapping from lawful guardianship under BNS applies to a minor male under sixteen years, a minor female under eighteen years, or

• A. Any adult
• B. A person of unsound mind
• C. A foreigner
• D. A convict

Q26. [BNS 2023] Rioting armed with a deadly weapon, or with anything which used as a weapon of offence is likely to cause death, is under BNS

• A. The same as ordinary rioting
• B. An aggravated form of rioting
• C. An affray
• D. Not an offence

Q27. [BNS 2023] Theft or extortion becomes ‘robbery’ under BNS when, in order to commit it, the offender causes or attempts to cause

• A. Only wrongful loss
• B. Death, hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear thereof
• C. A civil injury
• D. Reputational harm

Q28. [BNS 2023] ‘Dishonestly receiving stolen property’ under BNS requires that the receiver

• A. Actually stole the property
• B. Knew or had reason to believe the property to be stolen
• C. Sold the property
• D. Was the true owner

Q29. [BNS 2023] ‘House-trespass’ under BNS is committed by whoever commits criminal trespass by entering into or remaining in

• A. Any open field
• B. A building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or for worship or custody of property
• C. A public road
• D. A vehicle in motion

Q30. [BNS 2023] BNS introduces a specific offence of ‘organised crime’ which covers continuing unlawful activity by a crime syndicate including

• A. An isolated theft
• B. Kidnapping, extortion, contract killing, cyber-crime and economic offences by syndicates
• C. A single assault
• D. Simple hurt

Q31. [BNS 2023] BNS introduces a distinct offence of ‘snatching’, which is theft where the offender

• A. Uses a firearm
• B. Suddenly or quickly or forcibly seizes or grabs movable property
• C. Breaks into a house
• D. Obtains delivery by fear

Q32. [BNSS 2023] The principle in Lalita Kumari, reflected in BNSS practice, is that registration of an FIR is mandatory if the information discloses a cognizable offence, and a preliminary enquiry is permissible only

• A. In every case
• B. To ascertain whether the information reveals a cognizable offence in doubtful cases
• C. To decide guilt
• D. To assess punishment

Q33. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, where a person complies with and continues to comply with a notice of appearance issued in lieu of arrest, he

• A. Must still be arrested
• B. Shall not be arrested unless recorded reasons justify it
• C. Loses the right to bail
• D. Must furnish sureties

Q34. [BNSS 2023] Bailable and non-bailable offences under BNSS differ in that for a bailable offence bail is

• A. A matter of discretion of the court
• B. Claimable as of right
• C. Never granted
• D. Only granted by the Sessions Court

Q35. [BNSS 2023] Maintenance of wife, children and parents under BNSS may be ordered against a person having sufficient means who neglects or refuses to maintain, and a ‘wife’ for this purpose includes a woman who

• A. Is judicially separated by her own choice
• B. Has been divorced by or has obtained a divorce and has not remarried
• C. Has remarried
• D. Was never lawfully married

Q36. [BNSS 2023] BNSS bars a court from taking cognizance of an offence punishable with fine only after the expiry of a limitation period of

• A. Three months
• B. Six months
• C. One year
• D. Three years

Q37. [BNSS 2023] Plea bargaining under BNSS is available to an accused, but it does not apply to offences

• A. Punishable with fine only
• B. Affecting the socio-economic condition of the country, or committed against a woman or a child below the age of fourteen
• C. Punishable up to one year
• D. Compoundable offences

Q38. [BNSS 2023] Under BNSS, the High Court exercising its inherent powers may make orders necessary to give effect to any order under the Sanhita, to prevent abuse of the process of any court, or

• A. To review evidence de novo
• B. Otherwise to secure the ends of justice
• C. To alter constitutional provisions
• D. To grant divorce

Q39. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, evidence of motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct of a party or agent is

• A. Never relevant
• B. Relevant
• C. Relevant only against the accused
• D. Relevant only in matrimonial matters

Q40. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, admissions are

• A. Conclusive proof of the matters admitted
• B. Always inadmissible
• C. Not conclusive proof but may operate as estoppel
• D. Relevant only if in writing

Q41. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, where more persons than one are tried jointly for the same offence and a confession affecting the maker and such others is proved, the court

• A. May take the confession into consideration against the co-accused
• B. Must convict all
• C. Must ignore it entirely
• D. Must acquit the maker

Q42. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when the court has to form an opinion on a point of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of specially skilled persons are

• A. Relevant facts
• B. Irrelevant
• C. Conclusive proof
• D. Admissible only with consent

Q43. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the court presumes the genuineness of every document purporting to be a certificate, certified copy or other document declared by law to be admissible, if

• A. It is over thirty years old
• B. It is duly certified and produced in the prescribed manner
• C. It bears a stamp
• D. Both parties consent

Q44. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, the general rule of burden of proof is that whoever desires a court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts

• A. Need not prove anything
• B. Must merely allege them
• C. Must prove that those facts exist
• D. Can shift the entire burden to the defendant

Q45. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, when the question is whether a person committed suicide within seven years of marriage having been subjected to cruelty, the court may presume abetment. This presumption is

• A. Conclusive
• B. Available only in civil suits
• C. Irrebuttable
• D. Rebuttable

Q46. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, a Judge or Magistrate cannot, except upon special order of a superior court, be compelled to answer questions as to

• A. Their personal life
• B. Any legal question
• C. Their own conduct in court as such, or anything coming to their knowledge as a judge
• D. Public records

Q47. [Evidence/BSA] Under the BSA, in the examination of witnesses the order in which they are produced and questioned is regulated by

• A. The witnesses themselves
• B. The law and practice relating to civil and criminal procedure, and in their absence the court’s discretion
• C. The parties’ agreement only
• D. The senior advocate

Q48. [Constitution] Under Article 3, a Bill for the formation of a new State or alteration of area or boundary of a State can be introduced in Parliament only

• A. With the consent of the concerned State
• B. By a two-thirds majority
• C. On the recommendation of the President and after referring the Bill to the State Legislature for its views
• D. After a referendum

Q49. [Constitution] The concept of a ‘creamy layer’ as an exclusion in reservation for backward classes was primarily articulated in

• A. Balaji
• B. Indra Sawhney
• C. Mandal alone without a case
• D. Champakam

Q50. [Constitution] The protection against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) extends to

• A. Any statement whatsoever
• B. Only oral confessions to police
• C. All documentary evidence
• D. Compelled testimonial evidence, not physical evidence like specimen signatures or thumb impressions

Q51. [Constitution] Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in

• A. Any employment whatsoever
• B. Any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment
• C. Domestic work
• D. Agriculture only

Q52. [Constitution] The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is available for the enforcement of

• A. Any legal right
• B. Directive Principles
• C. Fundamental rights only
• D. Statutory rights

Q53. [Constitution] Repeated re-promulgation of ordinances without placing them before the legislature was condemned as a fraud on the Constitution in

• A. A.K. Roy
• B. Rustom Cavasjee Cooper
• C. R.C. Cooper
• D. D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar

Q54. [Constitution] The expression ‘district judge’ under Article 236 includes

• A. Judge of a city civil court, additional district judge, sessions judge, and others as enumerated
• B. Only the principal civil judge
• C. Only sessions judges
• D. Only High Court judges

Q55. [Constitution] Under Article 356, a Proclamation of President’s Rule must ordinarily be laid before Parliament and ceases to operate at the expiration of two months unless approved, and its total duration cannot ordinarily exceed

• A. Six months
• B. Three years
• C. One year
• D. Five years

Q56. [Constitution] The National Judicial Appointments Commission and the 99th Amendment were struck down as violative of the independence of the judiciary, part of the basic structure, in the

• A. First Judges case
• B. Second Judges case
• C. NJAC (Fourth Judges) case
• D. Third Judges case

Q57. [Constitution] The doctrine of territorial nexus permits a State to tax or legislate on a matter outside its territory provided

• A. There is a sufficient territorial connection between the object and the State
• B. The subject has no connection with the State
• C. Parliament consents
• D. The tax is small

Q58. [Contract] Two persons make identical offers to each other in ignorance of each other’s offer. In law such cross offers:

• A. Constitute a concluded contract at once
• B. Do not amount to acceptance and form no contract
• C. Are treated as a counter-offer by the second
• D. Bind only the earlier offeror

Q59. [Contract] Under Section 23, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful where it is such that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law. An agreement of this kind is:

• A. Voidable at the option of the promisee
• B. Void
• C. Valid but unenforceable
• D. Merely irregular

Q60. [Contract] A minor may be appointed an agent under Section 184; the consequence is that:

• A. The minor is personally liable to the principal
• B. The principal is bound by the minor’s acts though the minor incurs no personal liability
• C. The agency is void
• D. The minor becomes a partner automatically

Q61. [Contract] Where consent to an agreement is caused by fraud, under Section 19 the contract is voidable; but a party whose consent was so caused may also insist that:

• A. The contract be declared void
• B. The contract be performed and he be put in the position he would have been had the representation been true
• C. Damages be trebled
• D. A new contract be substituted

Q62. [Contract] Under Section 28, an agreement is void to the extent it absolutely restricts a party from enforcing his rights by the usual legal proceedings; however, an agreement to refer disputes to arbitration is:

• A. Void as ousting jurisdiction
• B. Expressly saved by exceptions to Section 28
• C. Valid only if court-approved
• D. Void unless registered

Q63. [Contract] A person who supplies necessaries to one incapable of contracting, or to those whom that incapable person is legally bound to support, is entitled under Section 68 to:

• A. Full damages for breach
• B. Reimbursement from the property of such incapable person
• C. Nothing, as the contract is void
• D. Only the cost price

Q64. [Contract] Under Section 43, where two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may, in the absence of express agreement, compel:

• A. All jointly only
• B. Any one or more of the joint promisors to perform the whole
• C. Only the first named promisor
• D. The promisors in equal shares

Q65. [Contract] Under Section 54, where the nature of reciprocal promises is such that one cannot be performed until the other is performed, and the party who ought to perform first fails, that party:

• A. Is discharged
• B. Cannot claim performance from the other and must compensate the loss
• C. May sue for specific performance
• D. Is entitled to the price

Q66. [Contract] Under the rule in Hadley v Baxendale, reflected in Section 73, special or extraordinary damages beyond those arising naturally are recoverable only if:

• A. The loss is very large
• B. Such special circumstances were known to both parties at the time of contracting
• C. The breach was deliberate
• D. A penalty was stipulated

Q67. [Contract] Under Section 133, any variance made without the surety’s consent in the terms of the contract between the principal debtor and the creditor:

• A. Does not affect the surety
• B. Discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to the variance
• C. Increases the surety’s liability
• D. Requires fresh registration

Q68. [Property] Under Section 6(a), the chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, being a mere spes successionis, is:

• A. Freely transferable
• B. Not capable of being transferred
• C. Transferable only by will
• D. Transferable with court permission

Q69. [Property] Under Section 11, where property is transferred absolutely but with a direction that a specified manner of enjoyment be observed, such direction, being repugnant to the absolute interest:

• A. Binds the transferee fully
• B. May be disregarded and the transferee may receive and dispose of the property as if no such direction were made
• C. Voids the transfer
• D. Converts it into a lease

Q70. [Property] Under Section 13, where an interest is created for the benefit of an unborn person, the interest must be preceded by a prior interest and must comprise:

• A. A life estate only in the unborn
• B. The whole of the remaining interest of the transferor
• C. Half the interest
• D. Only a contingent interest

Q71. [Property] Under Section 38, where a person authorised to transfer immovable property only in specified circumstances transfers it representing those circumstances to exist, a transferee acting in good faith after due enquiry:

• A. Takes no title
• B. Is not bound to enquire whether the circumstances actually existed and is protected
• C. Must obtain court approval
• D. Takes only a contingent interest

Q72. [Property] Under Section 52, the doctrine of lis pendens provides that during the pendency of a suit in which any right to immovable property is in question, the property cannot be transferred so as to affect the rights of any party under any decree, save with:

• A. The consent of one party
• B. The authority of the court and on such terms as it imposes
• C. Registration alone
• D. Payment of stamp duty

Q73. [Property] Under Section 56, where the owner of two or more properties mortgages them to one person and then sells one to another, the buyer is, in the absence of a contrary contract, entitled to have the mortgage-debt satisfied out of the property:

• A. He has bought
• B. Not sold to him, so far as the same will extend, by way of marshalling
• C. Of highest value
• D. Sold last only

Q74. [Property] Under Section 63, where mortgaged property in the mortgagee’s possession receives an accession during the continuance of the mortgage, the mortgagor is, in the absence of contrary contract, entitled on redemption to:

• A. Only the original property
• B. Such accession
• C. Pay extra for the accession always
• D. Nothing extra

Q75. [Property] Under Section 105, a lease of immovable property is a transfer of a right to enjoy such property for a certain time in consideration of a price paid or promised, or of money, share of crops, service or:

• A. A single lump sum only
• B. Any other thing of value to be rendered periodically or on specified occasions
• C. Interest alone
• D. A gift

Q76. [Property] Under Section 122, a gift is a transfer of existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration, and to be valid the acceptance must be made:

• A. After the donor’s death
• B. During the lifetime of the donor and while he is still capable of giving
• C. Within one year
• D. By the donor’s heirs

Q77. [Torts] The rule that mere knowledge of a risk does not by itself defeat a claim, so that a rescuer acting under moral or legal duty is not met by volenti, was affirmed in

• A. Haynes v Harwood
• B. Smith v Baker
• C. Hall v Brooklands
• D. Nichols v Marsland

Q78. [Torts] For res ipsa loquitur to apply, one essential requirement is that the thing causing harm was

• A. owned by the plaintiff
• B. under the exclusive management or control of the defendant
• C. insured against loss
• D. of a defective make

Q79. [Torts] The defence that a nuisance has been continued for the statutory period so as to become a legal right is

• A. consent
• B. prescription
• C. statutory authority
• D. act of God

Q80. [Torts] Under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, no-fault liability entitles the victim to a fixed sum without proof of negligence in cases of

• A. property damage only
• B. death or permanent disablement
• C. commercial goods loss
• D. insurance disputes

Q81. [Commercial] Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, an instrument on which the maker has signed and delivered it wanting in a material particular is called an

• A. ambiguous instrument
• B. inchoate instrument
• C. escrow instrument
• D. accommodation instrument

Q82. [Commercial] Section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act raises a presumption, until the contrary is proved, that the holder received the cheque for

• A. a gift
• B. the discharge of a debt or liability
• C. safe custody
• D. collection only

Q83. [Commercial] A ground of patent illegality for setting aside a purely domestic award was expressly confined and clarified by the 2015 amendment to

• A. Section 31
• B. Section 34
• C. Section 37
• D. Section 48

Q84. [Commercial] A resolution plan approved by the committee of creditors becomes binding on all stakeholders upon approval by the Adjudicating Authority under

• A. Section 30
• B. Section 31
• C. Section 33
• D. Section 53

Q85. [Commercial] The statutory duties of a director, including acting in good faith and in the best interests of the company, are codified in the Companies Act 2013 under

• A. Section 149
• B. Section 166
• C. Section 179
• D. Section 197

Q86. [Rajasthan Local Law] Appeals from an order of the Rent Tribunal under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 lie to the:

• A. Board of Revenue
• B. High Court
• C. District Judge
• D. Collector

Q87. [Rajasthan Local Law] Management of the estates of landholders under disability (minors, persons of unsound mind) in Rajasthan is under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Court of Wards Act
• C. Rajasthan Rent Control Act
• D. Land Revenue Act

Q88. [Rajasthan Local Law] Public religious and charitable trusts in Rajasthan are administered under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, 1959
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. Panchayati Raj Act

Q89. [Rajasthan Local Law] Settlement of newly-colonised or allotted land in the command areas of Rajasthan is regulated by the:

• A. Rent Control Act
• B. Rajasthan Colonisation Act, 1954
• C. Court of Wards Act
• D. Tenancy Act only

Q90. [Rajasthan Local Law] A tenant who cultivates the khudkasht of a landholder and is recorded as such is generally a:

• A. Khatedar tenant
• B. Tenant of khudkasht / sub-tenant with limited rights
• C. Malik
• D. Gair khatedar with full rights

Q91. [Rajasthan Local Law] Cooperative societies and disputes referable to the Registrar in Rajasthan are governed by the:

• A. Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Cooperative Societies Act, 2001
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. Colonisation Act

Q92. [Rajasthan Local Law] Urban development and building regulation for the Jaipur region is administered under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. Land Revenue Act

Q93. [Rajasthan Local Law] In Rajasthan, the primary field officer preparing the annual jamabandi and girdawari in a village is the:

• A. Collector
• B. Patwari
• C. Tehsildar
• D. Sub-Divisional Officer

Q94. [Rajasthan Local Law] The bar of civil-court jurisdiction under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act directs tenancy suits to the:

• A. High Court
• B. Revenue courts
• C. Rent Tribunal
• D. Consumer forum

Q95. [Rajasthan Local Law] Recovery of certain public/cooperative dues in Rajasthan as arrears of land revenue is a:

• A. Civil suit
• B. Coercive statutory recovery process
• C. Criminal trial
• D. Gift

Q96. [Rajasthan Local Law] Conversion of agricultural land to residential/commercial use in Rajasthan is permitted by an order under provisions (90A/90B) of the:

• A. Rent Control Act
• B. Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956
• C. Court of Wards Act
• D. Colonisation Act

Q97. [Rajasthan Local Law] Prevention of sati and its glorification in Rajasthan is dealt with under the:

• A. Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. Public Trusts Act

Q98. [Rajasthan Local Law] The apex revenue authority in Rajasthan hearing revisions in tenancy/revenue matters is the:

• A. Rajasthan High Court
• B. Board of Revenue, Ajmer
• C. Divisional Commissioner
• D. Collector

Q99. [Rajasthan Local Law] Time-bound delivery of notified public services to Rajasthan’s citizens is guaranteed under the:

• A. Colonisation Act
• B. Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act, 2011
• C. Court of Wards Act
• D. Tenancy Act

Q100. [Rajasthan Local Law] The three-tier Panchayati Raj institutions in Rajasthan (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad) function under the:

• A. Rajasthan Tenancy Act
• B. Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994
• C. Rent Control Act
• D. Land Revenue Act